Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
09.06.2025 10:18
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
How do we write and pronounce "it's my pleasure" in Italian?
You'll usually find your answer there.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
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Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.